About Shaitan (Verse 8:48)
Question:
Salaam bro,
I have two queries about verse 8:48.
1. In the above verse Satan is mentioned. One of the commentaries of Quran by Islahi states that in his opinion Satan here means the Jews of Medinah. His premise being that Satan are present among Jinns and human beings as well. What is your opinion on this.?
2. The second part of the verse states that the Satan states that he leaves them on account of what he beholds that they cannot and then states that he fears Allah and Allah is stern in punishment. My query is that Satan incites the non believers to fight Muslims in battle of Badr, then he sees Muslims supported by Divine help in the form of angels, he then states that he fears Allah, why would he then continue to challenge Allah after knowing, seeing and acknowledging him?
Answer:
Salam,
The verse is as follows:
وَ إِذْ زَيَّنَ لَهُمُ الشَّيْطَانُ أَعْمَالَهُمْ وَ قَالَ لَا غَالِبَ لَكُمُ الْيَوْمَ مِنَ النَّاسِ وَ إِنىِّ جَارٌ لَّكُمْ فَلَمَّا تَرَاءَتِ الْفِئَتَانِ نَكَصَ عَلىَ عَقِبَيْهِ وَ قَالَ إِنىِّ بَرِىءٌ مِّنكُمْ إِنىِّ أَرَى مَا لَا تَرَوْنَ إِنىِّ أَخَافُ اللهَ وَ اللهُ شَدِيدُ الْعِقَاب
"And when the Shaitan made their works seem fair to them, and said: No one can overcome you this day, and I am supporting you But when the two parties came in sight of each other he turned upon his heels, and said: I am clear of you, I see what you do not see, I fear God And God has severe punishment." (8:48)
I do appreciate where Amin Ahasn Islahi, is coming from with regard to this verse. There are enough evidences in the Qur'an (like 6:112 and 114:5,6) to show that Shatan is not an independent entity. Any human being or Jinn whose main objectives is to systematically deceive others and misguide them can be called Shaitan. We also know about the conflict and the enmity of Jews of Medina with the Prophet (pbuh) and the believers.
However I do not feel fully comfortable with Islahi's interpretation that Shatan here means Jews of the time in Medinah. The main reason is that I am not aware of any concrete evidences in the Qur'an or the history that proves that Jews were influential in igniting the battle of Badr (which this verse is about) and that they promised to help Quraysh, but after seeing the armies they flee.
Also I am influenced by the fact that the verse is using singular noun (Shaitan not Shayateen) and singular verb for this entity. I do appreciate that it would not be wrong to use Al-Shaitan (singular) as a concept while referring to more than one individual. However this makes me even more keen to find a strong evidence to deviate from the default implication of the singular noun and verb.
Also according to the verse this Shaitan says: "I see something that you cannot see". Again I appreciate that It won't be wrong to interpret the above conceptually and to say seeing here means knowing. However again, in the absence of concrete evidences, I do not see any reason to do so. Therefore it seems to me that this sentence should be from a Shaitan that is of Jinn kind (who can see things that human beings cannot see).
Accordingly, till when I see a concrete evidence that can prompt me otherwise, I prefer to interpret the verse based on my understanding of its literal meaning, in the following way:
"And when the Shaitan (from Jinn) made their works seem fair to them, and said: No one can overcome you this day, and I am supporting you But when the two parties came in sight of each other he turned upon his heels, and said: I am clear of you, I see what you do not see (that is, the coming of angels), I fear God And God has severe punishment." (8:48)
The only thing that remains is that based on the above interpretation, how did Quaysh see the Jinn? We do not have any reliable information about this but I do not see it unlikely that the Jinn appeared as a human being to them (in fact there are some narrations suggesting that he appeared as some one they knew but these narrations are not very reliable).
And God knows best.
Your second question is: "why would he then continue to challenge Allah after knowing, seeing and acknowledging him?"
My answer is very simple, for the same reason that many human beings challenge God while knowing, seeing and acknowledging his power. At times they feel the fear and withdraw but they soon get back to their old evil habits. That is because of the mischief (Waswas) that establishes itself in the heart of many and makes them do wrong while knowing it is wrong. This itself is due to arrogance (Takabbur) which made some people becoming Kafir by denying the Messengers of God despite knowing deep down that these Messengers were really carrying the message of the Almighty.
We have another similar verse as well:
كَمَثَلِ الشَّيْطانِ إِذْ قالَ لِلْإِنْسانِ اكْفُرْ فَلَمَّا كَفَرَ قالَ إِنِّي بَريءٌ مِنْكَ إِنِّي أَخافُ اللهَ رَبَّ الْعالَمين
" Like the Shaitan when he says to man Disbelieve, but when he disbelieves, he says: I am surely clear of you; surely I fear God, the Lord of the entire world" (59:16)
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April 2013
Salaam bro,
I have two queries about verse 8:48.
1. In the above verse Satan is mentioned. One of the commentaries of Quran by Islahi states that in his opinion Satan here means the Jews of Medinah. His premise being that Satan are present among Jinns and human beings as well. What is your opinion on this.?
2. The second part of the verse states that the Satan states that he leaves them on account of what he beholds that they cannot and then states that he fears Allah and Allah is stern in punishment. My query is that Satan incites the non believers to fight Muslims in battle of Badr, then he sees Muslims supported by Divine help in the form of angels, he then states that he fears Allah, why would he then continue to challenge Allah after knowing, seeing and acknowledging him?
Answer:
Salam,
The verse is as follows:
وَ إِذْ زَيَّنَ لَهُمُ الشَّيْطَانُ أَعْمَالَهُمْ وَ قَالَ لَا غَالِبَ لَكُمُ الْيَوْمَ مِنَ النَّاسِ وَ إِنىِّ جَارٌ لَّكُمْ فَلَمَّا تَرَاءَتِ الْفِئَتَانِ نَكَصَ عَلىَ عَقِبَيْهِ وَ قَالَ إِنىِّ بَرِىءٌ مِّنكُمْ إِنىِّ أَرَى مَا لَا تَرَوْنَ إِنىِّ أَخَافُ اللهَ وَ اللهُ شَدِيدُ الْعِقَاب
"And when the Shaitan made their works seem fair to them, and said: No one can overcome you this day, and I am supporting you But when the two parties came in sight of each other he turned upon his heels, and said: I am clear of you, I see what you do not see, I fear God And God has severe punishment." (8:48)
I do appreciate where Amin Ahasn Islahi, is coming from with regard to this verse. There are enough evidences in the Qur'an (like 6:112 and 114:5,6) to show that Shatan is not an independent entity. Any human being or Jinn whose main objectives is to systematically deceive others and misguide them can be called Shaitan. We also know about the conflict and the enmity of Jews of Medina with the Prophet (pbuh) and the believers.
However I do not feel fully comfortable with Islahi's interpretation that Shatan here means Jews of the time in Medinah. The main reason is that I am not aware of any concrete evidences in the Qur'an or the history that proves that Jews were influential in igniting the battle of Badr (which this verse is about) and that they promised to help Quraysh, but after seeing the armies they flee.
Also I am influenced by the fact that the verse is using singular noun (Shaitan not Shayateen) and singular verb for this entity. I do appreciate that it would not be wrong to use Al-Shaitan (singular) as a concept while referring to more than one individual. However this makes me even more keen to find a strong evidence to deviate from the default implication of the singular noun and verb.
Also according to the verse this Shaitan says: "I see something that you cannot see". Again I appreciate that It won't be wrong to interpret the above conceptually and to say seeing here means knowing. However again, in the absence of concrete evidences, I do not see any reason to do so. Therefore it seems to me that this sentence should be from a Shaitan that is of Jinn kind (who can see things that human beings cannot see).
Accordingly, till when I see a concrete evidence that can prompt me otherwise, I prefer to interpret the verse based on my understanding of its literal meaning, in the following way:
"And when the Shaitan (from Jinn) made their works seem fair to them, and said: No one can overcome you this day, and I am supporting you But when the two parties came in sight of each other he turned upon his heels, and said: I am clear of you, I see what you do not see (that is, the coming of angels), I fear God And God has severe punishment." (8:48)
The only thing that remains is that based on the above interpretation, how did Quaysh see the Jinn? We do not have any reliable information about this but I do not see it unlikely that the Jinn appeared as a human being to them (in fact there are some narrations suggesting that he appeared as some one they knew but these narrations are not very reliable).
And God knows best.
Your second question is: "why would he then continue to challenge Allah after knowing, seeing and acknowledging him?"
My answer is very simple, for the same reason that many human beings challenge God while knowing, seeing and acknowledging his power. At times they feel the fear and withdraw but they soon get back to their old evil habits. That is because of the mischief (Waswas) that establishes itself in the heart of many and makes them do wrong while knowing it is wrong. This itself is due to arrogance (Takabbur) which made some people becoming Kafir by denying the Messengers of God despite knowing deep down that these Messengers were really carrying the message of the Almighty.
We have another similar verse as well:
كَمَثَلِ الشَّيْطانِ إِذْ قالَ لِلْإِنْسانِ اكْفُرْ فَلَمَّا كَفَرَ قالَ إِنِّي بَريءٌ مِنْكَ إِنِّي أَخافُ اللهَ رَبَّ الْعالَمين
" Like the Shaitan when he says to man Disbelieve, but when he disbelieves, he says: I am surely clear of you; surely I fear God, the Lord of the entire world" (59:16)
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April 2013