Beating wife?
Question:
My religion is said to be deen e fitrat (religion that fits with the nature of human beings). I fail to comprehend, why my religion allows the husband (in verse 4:34) to beat his wife in case of 'nashooz' (rebellion)? (Even though the husband is allowed to do so very gently so much so that it should not leave a mark anywhere). How does it expect the wife to reform by such an act?
Answer:
Yes Islam, like all godly religions and ideologies, is inline with our fitrah (nature). So then the question is: is beating wife inline with fitrah?
I argue that this question (that I wrote above) is not a valid one. We cannot answer yes or no to this question because it tries to link a subjective measure (beating) to an objective one (fitrah). This is like asking 'is shouting inline with fitrah?'.
The correct question should be this: 'Is injustice inline with fitrah?'. The answer is definitely 'No'.
So with the above in mind, I can now answer your question very briefly as follows:
Around 1400 years ago, in the male dominated, tribal, Arab society where men were chiefs of their family, lightly beating a rebellious wife, as the last resort, was considered just. Therefore it was inline with fitrah.
Today, in the 21st century, where normally men and women are equally contributing in their family and society, the concept of men being chiefs of their families no longer holds (at least not in the same meaning as 1400 years ago). Therefore the issue of 'rebellious wife' is no longer relevant. Therefore in this era 'beating wife' is not just, so it is not inline with fitrah.
If we use our inbuilt God given source of guidance (that is our Rationality - Aql) to better understand the textual God given source of guidance (that is the Qur'an), then we will notice that verse 4:35 clarifies what the ultimate goal of these instructions on dealing with wife, was. The ultimate goal according to verse 4:35 is Islah (reforming towards good). Therefore a thinking individual, instead of blindly following the text and in that way working against the very spirit of the text, will recognise that 'beating' is no longer relevant today. This thinking individual will appreciate that, in case of any major disagreements between the husband and wife, measures that are considered as appropriate solutions today need to be taken (just as 1400 years ago, measures that were considered as appropriate in Arabia were taken).
The Qur'an has referred to beating wife once. The Qur'an has referred to Rationality more than fifty times. We can stick to the text of the first (i.e. the verse about beating wife), and in this way ignore the text of the latter (i.e. verses about using rationality); or we can appreciate the latter (i.e. verses about using rationality) and accordingly understand the real point of the first (i.e. verse on beating wife).
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Related Topics:
- Why in Islam women seem to be at a significant 'disadvantage compered to men?
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February 2018
My religion is said to be deen e fitrat (religion that fits with the nature of human beings). I fail to comprehend, why my religion allows the husband (in verse 4:34) to beat his wife in case of 'nashooz' (rebellion)? (Even though the husband is allowed to do so very gently so much so that it should not leave a mark anywhere). How does it expect the wife to reform by such an act?
Answer:
Yes Islam, like all godly religions and ideologies, is inline with our fitrah (nature). So then the question is: is beating wife inline with fitrah?
I argue that this question (that I wrote above) is not a valid one. We cannot answer yes or no to this question because it tries to link a subjective measure (beating) to an objective one (fitrah). This is like asking 'is shouting inline with fitrah?'.
The correct question should be this: 'Is injustice inline with fitrah?'. The answer is definitely 'No'.
So with the above in mind, I can now answer your question very briefly as follows:
Around 1400 years ago, in the male dominated, tribal, Arab society where men were chiefs of their family, lightly beating a rebellious wife, as the last resort, was considered just. Therefore it was inline with fitrah.
Today, in the 21st century, where normally men and women are equally contributing in their family and society, the concept of men being chiefs of their families no longer holds (at least not in the same meaning as 1400 years ago). Therefore the issue of 'rebellious wife' is no longer relevant. Therefore in this era 'beating wife' is not just, so it is not inline with fitrah.
If we use our inbuilt God given source of guidance (that is our Rationality - Aql) to better understand the textual God given source of guidance (that is the Qur'an), then we will notice that verse 4:35 clarifies what the ultimate goal of these instructions on dealing with wife, was. The ultimate goal according to verse 4:35 is Islah (reforming towards good). Therefore a thinking individual, instead of blindly following the text and in that way working against the very spirit of the text, will recognise that 'beating' is no longer relevant today. This thinking individual will appreciate that, in case of any major disagreements between the husband and wife, measures that are considered as appropriate solutions today need to be taken (just as 1400 years ago, measures that were considered as appropriate in Arabia were taken).
The Qur'an has referred to beating wife once. The Qur'an has referred to Rationality more than fifty times. We can stick to the text of the first (i.e. the verse about beating wife), and in this way ignore the text of the latter (i.e. verses about using rationality); or we can appreciate the latter (i.e. verses about using rationality) and accordingly understand the real point of the first (i.e. verse on beating wife).
--------
Related Topics:
- Why in Islam women seem to be at a significant 'disadvantage compered to men?
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February 2018
