Does the Qur'an Say That There Have Been Female Prophets?
Question:
Please clarify me about my answered question in aastana group:
My question was:
Does Quran tell anywhere that woman is also Nabi / Rasool?
The answer I received was:
there is no gender discrimination in Quran. The message starts with ذَٰلِكَ ٱلْكِتَٰبُ لَا رَيْبَ فِيهِ هُدًى لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ which means that the book is for لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ/ muttaqeen and لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ can be both men and women. any human being can attain the status of rajal, rasool or nabi, regardless of class, creed, gender or race". In many verses where masculine gender is used as "UNZILA ELAIKA" for example in 13/19,5/67,18/27, the status of Rijal as a Rasool has been addressed (gender does not matter). NABI/RASOOL will always be from Rijal 12/109,21/7 "Rajal" reflects a status (also mental status) which is not gender dependent. the status depends on utilization of certain abilities and potentials, which both men and women can achieve. See 18:37 His companion said to him while he was conversing with him, "Have you disbelieved in He who created you from dust and then from a sperm-drop and then proportioned you [as] a man? Translating this verse into A MAN is wrong, because women are made by the same process.
Verse 108 of Surah At-Taubah defines “Rijal” as follow.
لَا تَقُمْ فِيهِ أَبَدًا ۚ لَّمَسْجِدٌ أُسِّسَ عَلَى التَّقْوَىٰ مِنْ أَوَّلِ يَوْمٍ أَحَقُّ أَن تَقُومَ فِيهِ ۚ فِيهِ رِجَالٌ يُحِبُّونَ أَن يَتَطَهَّرُوا ۚ وَاللَّهُ يُحِبُّ الْمُطَّهِّرِينَ
"You shall never stand in this Masjid. The Masjid that was founded on Taqwa (righteousness) from day one is more appropriate for you to stand in. There you find people who desire to be purified. And Allah likes those who strive for redemption."
It is obvious from the above verse that Rijal are people who stand in the Masjid founded on Taqwa (righteousness or piety) and they desire redemption. We cannot translate Rijal to mean travel on foot, as not all people walk to Masjid. Also, we cannot translate it to mean men because both men and women go to Masjid. Hence, the Arabic term Rijal includes both men and women. RAJAL are courageous, determined, and steadfast individuals who stand firm on their ground in all circumstance. The word Rijala in the verse 22:27 is an object in present form. Hence, it speaks about a situation.
Answer:
Allow me to first answer your original question based on my understanding before commenting on the answer you have quoted.
The Question is "Does the Qur'an say that there have been female prophets?"
The answer to this question is No. If any one thinks that the Qur'an has referred to a female prophet then he needs to produce the chapter and the verse number.
Another slightly different question may emerge from the above, that is: "Could there be any female prophets in the past that the Qur'an has not mentioned?"
From a very theoretical point of view my answer to the above is: "Yes it could be". This is simply because no where in the Qur'an we have anything to the effect that all the past prophets were male.
However from a more realistic point of view my answer will be: "I don't think so."
There are two reasons for this:
1. In the Qur'an there is mention of some pious women like Maryam (pbuh) but has never been a mention of a female prophet.
2. In most societies in the middle ages, people would expect a male leader (religious or political). It is unlikely that God would send a prophet to a nation that
I now comment on the answer you quoted:
There are points in the answer that I am in principle in agreement with:
I do agree that when it comes to relationship with the Almighty and the way the Almighty treats His servants, there is no gender discrimination in the Qur'an.
I also agree that the word Rijal does not always refer to men only.
However I dot not agree with this statement:
"the Arabic term Rijal includes both men and women"
The above statement has been concluded based on a wrong approach to understanding a language in general and verses of the Qur'an specifically. The fact that a word in a sentence has a particular meaning does not necessarily mean that in every other sentence it has the same meaning. The word Rijal by default means Men, however if there is an evidence in the sentence or the context it may mean a courageous individual (in fact this meaning itself is derived from the original meaning of the word).
I also do not agree with the quoted interpretations for the verses 12:109, 21:7, 18:37 and 9:108. I explain each briefly:
Verses 12:109 and 21:7:
وَمَآ أَرۡسَلۡنَا مِن قَبۡلِكَ إِلَّا رِجَالاً۬ نُّوحِىٓ إِلَيۡہِم مِّنۡ أَهۡلِ ٱلۡقُرَىٰٓۗ أَفَلَمۡ يَسِيرُواْ فِى ٱلۡأَرۡضِ فَيَنظُرُواْ كَيۡفَ كَانَ عَـٰقِبَةُ ٱلَّذِينَ مِن قَبۡلِهِمۡۗ وَلَدَارُ ٱلۡأَخِرَةِ خَيۡرٌ۬ لِّلَّذِينَ ٱتَّقَوۡاْۗ أَفَلَا تَعۡقِلُونَ
"And We have not sent before you but men from among the people of the towns, to whom We sent revelations Have they not then traveled in the land and seen what was the end of those before them? And certainly the abode of the hereafter is best for those who guard (against evil) Do you not then understand?" (12:109)
وَمَآ أَرۡسَلۡنَا قَبۡلَكَ إِلَّا رِجَالاً۬ نُّوحِىٓ إِلَيۡہِمۡۖ فَسۡـَٔلُوٓاْ أَهۡلَ ٱلذِّڪۡرِ إِن كُنتُمۡ لَا تَعۡلَمُونَ
"And We sent not before you but men to whom We revealed, so ask the people of the Reminder if you do not know." (21:7)
I do appreciate that these two verses cannot be used to argue that prophets were always male. The point these two verses are making is not about the gender of the past prophets but the fact that the prophets were always normal people who received revelations (they were not angels or any thing beyond human being).
However I am not sure on what basis the author writes:
"Rajal" reflects a status (also mental status) which is not gender dependent. the status depends on utilization of certain abilities and potentials, which both men and women can achieve."
I do not see what is wrong with translating Rijal in these verses with its default meaning, that is 'men'.
I am also not sure how the author knows that the 'status' referred to in this verse can be achieved by both men and women. I can think of many statuses that only men or only women can achieve.
Verse 18:37:
قَالَ لَهُ ۥ صَاحِبُهُ ۥ وَهُوَ يُحَاوِرُهُ ۥۤ أَكَفَرۡتَ بِٱلَّذِى خَلَقَكَ مِن تُرَابٍ۬ ثُمَّ مِن نُّطۡفَةٍ۬ ثُمَّ سَوَّٮٰكَ رَجُلاً۬
"His companion said to him, during the talk with him: "Do you disbelieve in Him Who created you out of dust (i.e. your father Adam), then out of sperm drop, then fashioned you into a man?" (18:37)
The author writes:
"Translating this verse into A MAN is wrong, because women are made by the same process."
The fact that women are made by the same process does not stop us from translating Rajul in this verse as Man. The verse is a statement being made for the benefit of a specific person (who happens to be a man), The statement was not supposed to be about human being in general.
Verse 9:108:
لَا تَقُمۡ فِيهِ أَبَدً۬اۚ لَّمَسۡجِدٌ أُسِّسَ عَلَى ٱلتَّقۡوَىٰ مِنۡ أَوَّلِ يَوۡمٍ أَحَقُّ أَن تَقُومَ فِيهِۚ فِيهِ رِجَالٌ۬ يُحِبُّونَ أَن يَتَطَهَّرُواْۚ وَٱللَّهُ يُحِبُّ ٱلۡمُطَّهِّرِينَ
"Never stand in it! It is more fitting for you to stand in a mosque which has been founded on guarding (against evil) from the very first day in which there are men who love to be (spiritually) clean. And God loves those who cleanse themselves." (9:108)
I appreciate that the word Rijal in this verse may be translated as Individuals however I do not agree with the following statement:
"Verse 108 of Surah At-Taubah defines “Rijal” as follows"
The verse has not provided definition for the word Rijal. The verse simply describes the Rijal that it is referring to, as clear from the above translation.
Apart from the above, the author writes:
"The word Rijala in the verse 22:27 is an object in present form"
It is true that Rijalan here has nothing to do with being male or female, however I am not sure what the author means by the above statement. Rijalan in the verse is plural of Rajil, meaning 'walkers'.
-----------------
March 2013
Please clarify me about my answered question in aastana group:
My question was:
Does Quran tell anywhere that woman is also Nabi / Rasool?
The answer I received was:
there is no gender discrimination in Quran. The message starts with ذَٰلِكَ ٱلْكِتَٰبُ لَا رَيْبَ فِيهِ هُدًى لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ which means that the book is for لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ/ muttaqeen and لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ can be both men and women. any human being can attain the status of rajal, rasool or nabi, regardless of class, creed, gender or race". In many verses where masculine gender is used as "UNZILA ELAIKA" for example in 13/19,5/67,18/27, the status of Rijal as a Rasool has been addressed (gender does not matter). NABI/RASOOL will always be from Rijal 12/109,21/7 "Rajal" reflects a status (also mental status) which is not gender dependent. the status depends on utilization of certain abilities and potentials, which both men and women can achieve. See 18:37 His companion said to him while he was conversing with him, "Have you disbelieved in He who created you from dust and then from a sperm-drop and then proportioned you [as] a man? Translating this verse into A MAN is wrong, because women are made by the same process.
Verse 108 of Surah At-Taubah defines “Rijal” as follow.
لَا تَقُمْ فِيهِ أَبَدًا ۚ لَّمَسْجِدٌ أُسِّسَ عَلَى التَّقْوَىٰ مِنْ أَوَّلِ يَوْمٍ أَحَقُّ أَن تَقُومَ فِيهِ ۚ فِيهِ رِجَالٌ يُحِبُّونَ أَن يَتَطَهَّرُوا ۚ وَاللَّهُ يُحِبُّ الْمُطَّهِّرِينَ
"You shall never stand in this Masjid. The Masjid that was founded on Taqwa (righteousness) from day one is more appropriate for you to stand in. There you find people who desire to be purified. And Allah likes those who strive for redemption."
It is obvious from the above verse that Rijal are people who stand in the Masjid founded on Taqwa (righteousness or piety) and they desire redemption. We cannot translate Rijal to mean travel on foot, as not all people walk to Masjid. Also, we cannot translate it to mean men because both men and women go to Masjid. Hence, the Arabic term Rijal includes both men and women. RAJAL are courageous, determined, and steadfast individuals who stand firm on their ground in all circumstance. The word Rijala in the verse 22:27 is an object in present form. Hence, it speaks about a situation.
Answer:
Allow me to first answer your original question based on my understanding before commenting on the answer you have quoted.
The Question is "Does the Qur'an say that there have been female prophets?"
The answer to this question is No. If any one thinks that the Qur'an has referred to a female prophet then he needs to produce the chapter and the verse number.
Another slightly different question may emerge from the above, that is: "Could there be any female prophets in the past that the Qur'an has not mentioned?"
From a very theoretical point of view my answer to the above is: "Yes it could be". This is simply because no where in the Qur'an we have anything to the effect that all the past prophets were male.
However from a more realistic point of view my answer will be: "I don't think so."
There are two reasons for this:
1. In the Qur'an there is mention of some pious women like Maryam (pbuh) but has never been a mention of a female prophet.
2. In most societies in the middle ages, people would expect a male leader (religious or political). It is unlikely that God would send a prophet to a nation that
I now comment on the answer you quoted:
There are points in the answer that I am in principle in agreement with:
I do agree that when it comes to relationship with the Almighty and the way the Almighty treats His servants, there is no gender discrimination in the Qur'an.
I also agree that the word Rijal does not always refer to men only.
However I dot not agree with this statement:
"the Arabic term Rijal includes both men and women"
The above statement has been concluded based on a wrong approach to understanding a language in general and verses of the Qur'an specifically. The fact that a word in a sentence has a particular meaning does not necessarily mean that in every other sentence it has the same meaning. The word Rijal by default means Men, however if there is an evidence in the sentence or the context it may mean a courageous individual (in fact this meaning itself is derived from the original meaning of the word).
I also do not agree with the quoted interpretations for the verses 12:109, 21:7, 18:37 and 9:108. I explain each briefly:
Verses 12:109 and 21:7:
وَمَآ أَرۡسَلۡنَا مِن قَبۡلِكَ إِلَّا رِجَالاً۬ نُّوحِىٓ إِلَيۡہِم مِّنۡ أَهۡلِ ٱلۡقُرَىٰٓۗ أَفَلَمۡ يَسِيرُواْ فِى ٱلۡأَرۡضِ فَيَنظُرُواْ كَيۡفَ كَانَ عَـٰقِبَةُ ٱلَّذِينَ مِن قَبۡلِهِمۡۗ وَلَدَارُ ٱلۡأَخِرَةِ خَيۡرٌ۬ لِّلَّذِينَ ٱتَّقَوۡاْۗ أَفَلَا تَعۡقِلُونَ
"And We have not sent before you but men from among the people of the towns, to whom We sent revelations Have they not then traveled in the land and seen what was the end of those before them? And certainly the abode of the hereafter is best for those who guard (against evil) Do you not then understand?" (12:109)
وَمَآ أَرۡسَلۡنَا قَبۡلَكَ إِلَّا رِجَالاً۬ نُّوحِىٓ إِلَيۡہِمۡۖ فَسۡـَٔلُوٓاْ أَهۡلَ ٱلذِّڪۡرِ إِن كُنتُمۡ لَا تَعۡلَمُونَ
"And We sent not before you but men to whom We revealed, so ask the people of the Reminder if you do not know." (21:7)
I do appreciate that these two verses cannot be used to argue that prophets were always male. The point these two verses are making is not about the gender of the past prophets but the fact that the prophets were always normal people who received revelations (they were not angels or any thing beyond human being).
However I am not sure on what basis the author writes:
"Rajal" reflects a status (also mental status) which is not gender dependent. the status depends on utilization of certain abilities and potentials, which both men and women can achieve."
I do not see what is wrong with translating Rijal in these verses with its default meaning, that is 'men'.
I am also not sure how the author knows that the 'status' referred to in this verse can be achieved by both men and women. I can think of many statuses that only men or only women can achieve.
Verse 18:37:
قَالَ لَهُ ۥ صَاحِبُهُ ۥ وَهُوَ يُحَاوِرُهُ ۥۤ أَكَفَرۡتَ بِٱلَّذِى خَلَقَكَ مِن تُرَابٍ۬ ثُمَّ مِن نُّطۡفَةٍ۬ ثُمَّ سَوَّٮٰكَ رَجُلاً۬
"His companion said to him, during the talk with him: "Do you disbelieve in Him Who created you out of dust (i.e. your father Adam), then out of sperm drop, then fashioned you into a man?" (18:37)
The author writes:
"Translating this verse into A MAN is wrong, because women are made by the same process."
The fact that women are made by the same process does not stop us from translating Rajul in this verse as Man. The verse is a statement being made for the benefit of a specific person (who happens to be a man), The statement was not supposed to be about human being in general.
Verse 9:108:
لَا تَقُمۡ فِيهِ أَبَدً۬اۚ لَّمَسۡجِدٌ أُسِّسَ عَلَى ٱلتَّقۡوَىٰ مِنۡ أَوَّلِ يَوۡمٍ أَحَقُّ أَن تَقُومَ فِيهِۚ فِيهِ رِجَالٌ۬ يُحِبُّونَ أَن يَتَطَهَّرُواْۚ وَٱللَّهُ يُحِبُّ ٱلۡمُطَّهِّرِينَ
"Never stand in it! It is more fitting for you to stand in a mosque which has been founded on guarding (against evil) from the very first day in which there are men who love to be (spiritually) clean. And God loves those who cleanse themselves." (9:108)
I appreciate that the word Rijal in this verse may be translated as Individuals however I do not agree with the following statement:
"Verse 108 of Surah At-Taubah defines “Rijal” as follows"
The verse has not provided definition for the word Rijal. The verse simply describes the Rijal that it is referring to, as clear from the above translation.
Apart from the above, the author writes:
"The word Rijala in the verse 22:27 is an object in present form"
It is true that Rijalan here has nothing to do with being male or female, however I am not sure what the author means by the above statement. Rijalan in the verse is plural of Rajil, meaning 'walkers'.
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March 2013
